高一年级期末考试分析

2024-09-08

高一年级期末考试分析（精选8篇）

高一年级期末考试分析篇1

襄垣二中秦芳

本次试卷为人教版必修3全册考试题。本试卷答题时间为120分钟，满分150分。本试题覆盖面广，难度不大，区分度小。我班62名考生中130分以上12人,120——129分15人，110——119分11人,100——109分13人，90——99分6人,90分以下的仅5人，平均分110多分。可以说成绩非常理想。

高一年级期末考试分析篇2

注意事项:本试卷分第I卷 (选择题) 和第II卷 (非选择题) 两部分。第I卷1至8页。第II卷9至12页。共150分。考试时间120分钟。

1. 答第I卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考试科目用铅笔涂在答题卡上。每小题选出答案后, 用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需要改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。不能答在试卷上。

2. 听力分为选择题和非选择题两部分。非选择题答在第II卷上。

3. 第II卷答案一律写在试卷上。交卷时只交答题卡和第II卷。。

第 I 卷 (共 94 分)

第一部分:听力 (共三节, 满分30分)

听力分为选择题和非选择题两部分。选择题为第1至16题;非选择题为第62至65题。

第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应的位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. Why can’t the woman give the man directions?

A. She is too weak to say much.

B. She hasn’t been here long either.

C. She is very much afraid.

2. How does the man feel?

A. He is sorry about his illness.

B. He is happy about lying in bed.

C. He is upset with the woman’s words.

3. Where is the conversation probably taking place?

A. On a plane. B. At the airport. C. In London.

4. Why won’t the woman go to the concert?

A. She will watch TV.

B. She will see her friend.

C. She will look after some children.

5. Who is the man probably talking to?

A. His daughter. B. His doctor. C. His patient.

第二节 (共11小题;每小题1.5分, 满分16.5分)

听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前, 你将有时间阅读各小题, 每小题5秒钟;听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。

听第6段材料, 回答第6至第7题。

6. Who will Lily send the postcard to?

A. Her parents. B. Her friend. C. Her grandparents.

7. When will they gather to celebrate Lily’s birthday tomorrow?

A. At 6 pm. B. At 6:15 pm. C. At 6:50 pm.

听第7段材料, 回答第8至第10题。

8. What does the man learn about animals and insects?

A. They have their own words.

B. They have their own languages.

C. They can talk with each other.

9. What does the woman think of the machine?

A. Wonderful. B. Common. C. Expensive.

10. Why does the woman want to buy a machine like that?

A. She is curious about the machine.

B. She needs to do research on animals.

C. She wants to understand her dog better.

听第8段材料, 回答第11至第13题。

11. When will they go to the ruins?

A. Today. B. Next week. C. Tomorrow.

12. What does the woman think of her room?

A. Clean and comfortable.

B. Clean but uncomfortable.

C. Dirty and uncomfortable.

13. What are the man and the woman?

A. Teachers. B. Students. C. Guides.

听第9段材料, 回答第14至第16题。

14. Who cooked a lot in David’s family in the past?

A. His father. B. His mother. C. David.

15. What did they fi nd interesting?

A. David doesn’t know how to cook.

B. Young husbands usually help cook.

C. Mothers usually do all the cooking.

16. Which country does the woman’s mother come from?

A. Britain. B. Australia. C. China.

第三节 (共4小题;每小题1.5分, 满分6分)

听第10段材料, 根据你所听到的内容, 在表格中第62至第65小题的空格里填上适当的单词, 使信息完整。每空填一个词。 ( 注意:请将本题答案写在二卷指定位置 )

第二部分:英语知识运用 (共两节, 满分40分)

第一节单项填空 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分)

从A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

17. The World Cup is a world-famous event, _______ everybody on the planet loves talking about.

A. which B. where C. that D. what

18. The visitors are so amazed at the snow here that they _______ for another two days.

A. stay B. have stayed C. are staying D. stayed

19. Margot won the fi rst place and she got her _______ of a seven-day journey to New Zealand.

A. reward B. charge C. value D. bargain

20. Peter doesn’t want to live in the country when he grows up, nor _______ to live in the city.

A. will he want B. he will want C. does he want D. he wants

21. We _______ the harm and will take steps to prevent it happening.

A. inspect B. recognize C. select D. ignore

22. Rescue workers are on the way to save those who _______ in the mountains because of the heavy snow.

A. were trapped B. trapped C. are trapping D. are trapped

23. I was frightened to death. It was several minutes _______ I realized what was happening.

A. before B. since C. until D. after

24. She is determined to get what she wants, _______ she will have to wait 18 years for it.

A. as if B. only if C. if only D. even if

25. December is that time of year _______ we pack up our thoughts and prepare for the next year.

A. where B. that C. when D. which

26. — Owen just has had no luck with job-hunting. — _______. He should have worked harder in college.

A. Yes, I agree B. You are correct

C. No way D. I’m sorry, but I don’t agree

第二节完形填空 (共20小题;每小题1.5分, 满分30分)

阅读下面短文, 从短文后所给各题的四个选项 (A、B、C和D) 中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

When I was small, my mom would use toast ( 土司面包 ) for dinner. I remember one __27__, after working all day, she still wanted to do something special for __28__. On that evening, my mom __29__ a plate of eggs, sausages and very burnt toast in front of my dad. I waited to see if anyone noticed. __30__ my dad just took his toast, __31__ at my mom and asked me how my day at school had been. Though I don’t __32__ what I told him that night, I do remember watching him put butter and jelly ( 果冻甜品 ) __33__ that toast. He ate it up __34__ , every single bite. After dinner, I remember hearing my mom say sorry to my dad for __35__ the toast. I’ll never forget what he said: “Honey, I love burnt toast.”Later that night, I went to kiss Daddy good __36__ . I asked him if he __37__ liked his toast burnt. He __38__ me in his arms and said: “Your Mommy worked very hard today. She’s really __39__ . And besides–a bit of burnt toast never hurts anyone!”

Life is full of imperfect things. __40__ is perfect. I’m not the best at anything. But I’ve learned something important over the years. We need to __41__ each other’s mistakes. We need to appreciate each other’s __42__. These two things are the keys to creating healthy, growing and lasting __43__. This rule goes for any relationship – friends, family, and even the people you __44__ on the bus. __45__ is the basis of everything, whether between a husband and wife, a parent and child or just between two friends. Don’t get __46__ if the toast gets burnt. Remember, burnt toast never hurts anyone. It’s the kind thoughts that count, and the people with those kind thoughts who make life worth living.

27. A. morning B. evening C. afternoon D. noon

28. A. herself B. dad C. us D. me

29. A. threw B. removed C. packed D. placed

30. A. But B. And C. So D. Or

31. A. shouted B. smiled C. laughed D. looked

32. A. recognize B. understand C. like D. remember

33. A. in B. beside C. on D. under

34. A. on purpose B. in relief C. as usual D. in a way

35. A. breaking B. burning C. softening D. boiling

36. A. night B. bye C. evening D. day

37. A. exactly B. really C. extremely D. quite

38. A. carried B. kept C. held D. controlled

39. A. tired B. caring C. stubborn D. determined

40. A. Everybody B. Nobody C. Anybody D. Somebody

41. A. accept B. know C. forget D. enjoy

42. A. shortcomings B. similarities C. successes D. differences

43. A. friendship B. power C. relationship D. attitude

44. A. meet with B. care about C. turn to D. deal with

45. A. Helping B. Ignoring C. Protecting D. Understanding

46. A. frightened B. upset C. amazed D. excited

第三部分阅读理解 (共两节 ; 满分30分)

第一节: (共10小题;每小题2分, 满分20分)

阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C和D) 中, 选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

The accident happened just a few months after I picked up my new car. It was clearly not my fault ( 过错 ) . The other guy was so busy on his cell phone that he went right through a red light and ran into my car. My new and very beautiful car was destroyed. It was even frightening because my niece was asleep on the back seat and her father, my brother, was in the front passenger seat. He was not happy.

The police arrived and began taking statements. I explained that I had been going at about 55 kmph. “So you were going about 50 kmph…”he said.

“No, I said I was doing about 55 kmph, ” I said.

“Right, so you were doing about 50 kmph…”again he repeated.

In a slightly angry voice because I felt I wasn’t being heard, I said: “No! I was doing about 55 kmph!”

“OK, if that’s the way you want it, ” this time the offi cer simply replied.

I didn’t realize it at the time. The city speed limit is 50 kmph. My insurance company paid me for the damages to my car. However, I ended up getting 50 percent less than I would have from the other guy’s insurance company because I had insisted I was doing 55 kmph.

I thought about what had happened again. It suddenly struck me that the traffi c policeman had been trying to help me out. He had known something about the insurance that I had not. I might have insisted that I told the truth, but I could at least have said “Thank you” to him instead of acting so rudely.

Sometimes the hardest thing to do is to have a listening ear - let other people talk while you simply shut up and listen. Never forget - to hear, you have to be able to listen.

47. The writer was frightened because _______ when the accident happened.

A. the other driver was too careless B. his new beautiful car was destroyed

C. he had two passengers on his car D. he was making a phone call while driving

48. The policeman repeated the writer was going 50 kmph to _______.

A. question him on the city speed limit

B. help him to get out of the trouble

C. make him angry by ignoring him

D. show him he took careful statements

49. The most important lesson the writer learned from the accident is _______.

A. never to make a phone call while driving

B. never to make dishonest statements to police

C. to learn the details of the insurance items

D. to let others talk and be a good listener

Some desert animals can live through the summer heat and dryness because they are very unusual. The camel, for example, can experience and bear an increase in the temperature of its body and its blood of 9℃without anything bad happening to it. In addition, it can drink a lot of water at one time; then store enough water in its body to supply its needs for two weeks or more. The kangaroo rat ( 长鼻袋鼠 ) , on the other hand, gets all the water it needs from water that it produces when it breathes. However, most animals can’t bear it if their body temperature rises more than 5℃ . Nor can they store or produce water in their bodies like the camel and kangaroo rat. So, because of the high temperature of a typical summer day, most of them are active only in the night. Only after the sun has set does the desert come fully to life. The night is relatively cool, and the darkness provides protection, not only from the sun, but also from other animals and the birds. So the coming of darkness is the signal for most animals and insects to start again their search for water and food. When morning comes, most of them seek shelter again.

For many kinds of insects, living in the desert is easier than for animals. Like many desert plants, they have a waterproof skin which prevents water loss because of the high temperature. In addition, some insects spend all or most of their life below ground. Here, for most of the year at least, there is some water, and it is generally cooler than on the surface. In the case of ants, only grown-up ants leave the underground nests ( 巢穴 ) , and they do soonly to gather food or to defend the nest against attack.

50. The camel and the kangroo rat are different from other animals in that _______.

A. they are animals not usually seen in the desert

B. they can bear a great increase in body temperature

C. they can get the water they need through breathing

D. they can either store or produce water in their bodies

51. The desert is full of life _______.

A. when animals look for food and water at summer nights

B. when it is morning and everything becomes active

C. when dangerous animals and birds sleep in the summer sun

D. when it is evening and animals begin to look for shelter for safety

52. The underlined word “waterproof” in the last paragraph means _______.

A. something that keeps you dry in wet weather

B. something that stops water passing through

C. something that gets damaged by water

D. something that tells you that you need water

53. Which of the following might serve as the best title for the passage?

A. Living Actively at Nights in the Desert.

B. Looking for Food and Water in the Desert.

C. Surviving Heat and Dryness in the Desert.

D. Finding Shelter from Enemy in the Desert.

Mountains & Valleys Tour

This 8-day tour takes you up and down, through coffee country, tobacco fi elds and farms. You’ll travel from the land of horses and cowboys to the ground that produces some of the country’s sweetest fruit, seeing high hilltops to Central America’s largest body of water.

Destination ( 目的地 ) : Managua, Nicaragua

Trip Length: 8 days

Price: From $1750 to $1850 per person

Age: 7 to 65+

Do It Yourself W-Trek

This do-it-yourself hiking is so designed that you need walk to the lookout point to the famous Towers, the rushing French river and the hanging glaciers, sleeping in mountain hotels. And of course, it takes plenty of strength.

Destination: Santiago, Chile

Trip Length: 11 days

Price: From $1850 to $2050 per person

Age: 18 to 65+

Society Islands, Tahiti

The islands of Tahiti in the South Pacifi c offer tourists a great destination. From our Tahiti hotels, sail out and enjoy the 118 islands. With high mountains, white sand, blue houses and green waters, this island has something for everyone.

Destination: Tahiti, French Polynesia

Trip Length: 7 days

Price: From $4000 to $6000 per person

Age: 6 to 65+

City Tour around Italy

Italy is perfect for those who enjoy the arts, architecture, breathtaking scenery, and beautiful beaches. Thejourney begins with Venice or Milan, then Florence and Rome. A quick train ride will get you to the beautiful waters at Amalfi Coast. Your last night will be spent in Naples.

Destination: Amalfi Coast; Florence; Naples; Rome; Venice; Milan, Italy

Trip Length: 16 days

Price: From $2500 to $ 3500 per person

Age: 8 to 65+

54. With a week to afford for a vacation, Willie will fi nd the trip to _______ best suits his schedule.

A. Santiago, Chile B. Tahiti, French Polynesia

C. Italian cities D. Managua, Nicaragua

55. The Jones are taking their nine-year-old son on an art trip, they would probably choose “_______”.

A. Mountains & Valleys Tour B. Do It Yourself W-Trek

C. Society Islands, Tahiti D. City Tour around Italy

56. Older people might refuse to consider Do It Yourself W-Trek because _______.

A. the price is too high B. the trip lasts a bit long

C. the hiking is tiring D. the age limit is loose

第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分, 满分10分)

阅读下面短文。根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 (注意:选E涂AB;选F涂AC;选G涂AD)

Effects ( 影响 ) of Television

Television affects the way people spend their time and what and how they learn. Some scientists believe TV has a greater infl uence on young people than on adults ( 成人 ) .

●Effects on free time

A typical ( 典型的 ) adult spends more time watching TV than doing anything else except sleeping and working. ___57___ It takes time away from other activities of adults, such as reading, conversation, social gatherings, and exercise.

●Effects on learning

Television is of great help to what home viewers learn. ___58___ However, TV also may add to people’s bad impressions of the world.

1. ___59___

No communication system has ever provided so many people with new experiences as television has. Without leaving their homes, TV viewers can see how people in far-off lands look and live. Television takes viewers to deserts, jungles ( 丛林 ) , and the ocean f loor. A TV viewer can see how a famous actor performs the role of Hamlet…

2. Harmful impressions

Television programs often show people who lead more wonderful lives and are richer than most of us. ___60___ As a result, the expectations of us are raised. One harmful effect results when people fail to achieve the success they see on TV.

●Effects on young people

___61___ Parents have long been concerned about the amount ( 数量 ) of time young people spend watching TV. Studies have connected watching a lot of television with poor performance in school. However, some experts don’t believe that TV viewing actually causes students to perform poorly.

A. Enriched experience

B. Fast communication

C. It improves people’s learning by widening their experience.

D. Watching television improves the students’ performance in school.

E. There is little agreement about how television affects young people.

F. In addition, TV advertisements try to persuade us to buy many unwanted goods.

G. Watching television may be the most time-costing free-time activity among adults.

第 II 卷 (共 56 分)

听力:非选择题部分 (共4小题。每小题1.5分, 满分6分)

第四部分:填空 (共三节, 满分20分)

第一节:单词拼写 (共5小题。每小题1分, 满分5分)

根据下列句子及所给汉语注释, 写出空缺处各单词的正确形式。 (每空只写一词)

66. She gladly gave up her part-time job and_______ ( 专心于 ) herself entirely to her art.66. ___________

67. The government sent millions of dollars’ _______ ( 价值 ) of supplies to the disaster-hit area. 67. ___________

68. Women and girls must be treated _______ ( 平等地 ) if a country is to grow. 68. ___________

69. This year, Buick got the fi rst place as the most _______ ( 可靠的 ) car in the world. 69. ___________

70. It will take the scientists six weeks to _______ ( 探测 ) the underwater mountains. 70. ___________

第二节:完成句子 (共5小题。每空1分, 满分10分)

根据所给汉意, 补全下列英文句子, 每空只填一词。

71. 让我们携手保护濒危物种, 使其不致灭绝。

Let’s work together to ________ endangered species ________ dying out.

72. 直到多年以后我才见到了保罗。

________ wasn’t until after many years ________ I met Paul.

73. 戴茜仍在和双方商谈以寻求解决问题的方法。

Daisy is still talking to both sides ________ ________ of a way to solve their problem.

74. 最终决断前你一定要花时间去真正地了解他。

Take the time to really learn about him before you ________ ________ your mind.

75. 她在以前的生活中从来没有经历过这样的困难。

Never before in her life has she _______ _______ such diffi culties.

第三节:短文填空 (共5小题。每小题1分, 满分5分)

在短文的空白处填入合适的单词, 使短文意义完整, 逻辑通顺。答案写在短文后面的指定位置。 (每空只填一词)

Do you know why English has changed over time? Actually all languages change and develop. Old English was very different from the English spoken today. It was 76 more on German than the English we speak at present. Then, English gradually became 77 like German because the settlers, who spoke fi rst Danish and later French, 78 Britain between about AD 800 and 1150. These new settlers enriched the English language and especially its vocabulary. By the 1600’s Shakespeare was able to make 79 of a wider vocabulary than ever before. Finally by the 19th century the language was settled. Now, English is also spoken 80 a foreign or second language in many parts of the world.

76. ________ 77. ________ 78. ________ 79. ________ 80. ________

第五部分:写作 (共两节, 满分30分)

第四节:短文改错 (共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分)

读下面的短文, 文中共有10处语言错误, 每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号 (∧) , 并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线 () 划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线, 并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词。

2. 只允许修改10处, 多者 (从第11处起) 不计分。

3. 必须按答题要求做题, 否则不给分。

Hi Susan,

We’re planning a party for Xiaoming’s birthday, that will be held at 8 pm this Friday after the evening classes. We’d like to invited you to the party. We want to give him a surprise, so please keep quietly about it. We’ll gather at the Students’ Club, and each of them will prepare a little present. When he comes, and we’ll light the candles and sing “Happy Birthday” together for him. Then the cake will cut and we’ll sing several song and play games. The party is going to last about a hour. It’ll be nice to see how exciting he will be. I’m sure you would have a good time at the party, too.

Yours,

Li Hua

第五节:书面表达 (满分20分)

最近, 某英语报社就要不要继续寻找丢失的琥珀屋 (Amber Room) 展开了讨论。请你就以下要点写一篇短文 :

1. 它由精选稀有的琥珀制成, 并用金子和珠宝加以装饰。

2. 它的设计风格奇特, 具有很大的艺术学习价值。

3. 它是珍贵文化遗产, 具有历史研究价值。

4. 寻找的过程也是研究的过程, 所以值得寻找。

注意:1. 可以根据要点适当增加细节, 字数80左右。

2. 开头已给出, 不计入总词数。

Recently, we had a discussion about whether we should continue to search for the Amber Room. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

附参考答案

I 卷

听力:1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. C

单项选择:17. A 18. C 19. A 20. C 21.B 22.D 23. A 24. D 25. C 26.D

完形填空:27. B 28. C 29. D 30. A 31.B 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. B

阅读理解:47. C 48. B 49. D 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. D 56. C 57. G 58. C 59. A 60. F 61. E

II 卷

62. stadium 63. transport / transportation 64. English 65. Green

(62-65小题旨在考查学生在听中获取信息的能力。建议:62、63题中如有一个字母的拼写错误, 或64、65题中首字母小写, 可给分。)

66. devoted 67. worth 68. equally 69. reliable 70. explore

71. protect…from 72. It…that 73. in search 74. make up 75. gone through

76. based 77. less 78. ruled / governed / controlled 79. use 80. as

短文改错

Hi Susan,

We’re planning a party for Xiaoming’s birthday, will be held at 8 pm this Friday afterthe evening classes. We’d like toyou to the party. We want to give him a surprise, so please keepabout it. We’ll gather at the Students’ Club, and each ofwillprepare a little present. When he comeswe’ll light the candles and sing “HappyBirthday” together for him. Then the cake willcut and we’ll sing severaand playgames. The party is going to last abouthour. It’ll be nice to see howhe will be.I’m sure youhave a good time at the party, too

Yours,

Li Hua

书面表达

One possible version

Most ofus think it is well worth doing. Firstly, several tons of rare amber were selected to make the Amber Room, which was also decorated with gold and jewels. Secondly, the design of the room was in such a fancy style that artists today can learn a lot from it. In addition, as a cultural relic, it is of great value to the study of history. Finally, while searching for it, we are also doing a kind of research. So there is no doubt that we should continue our search.

听力录音稿

Text 1

M: Excuse me, can you tell me if this bus goes to Park Square?

W: Sorry, I’m afraid I can’t. I’ve only been here a few weeks myself.

Text 2

W: Why do you still lie in bed? Just look at the rubbish all around you.

M: You shouldn’t speak like that. I feel a bit sick today.

Text 3

W: When will we be arriving in London?

M: We still have to fl y another forty minutes before we arrive at Gatvick.

Text 4

M: If you’d like to go to the concert this Friday, my sister will give me two tickets for tomorrow.

W: Thank you, but I promised my friend that I’d watch her children.

Text 5

W: I’m not feeling so well.

M: Get some rest and take these three times a day and you will feel better. If you don’t, come back and see me.

Text 6

M: Hi, Lily. Is there anything I can do for you?

W: Oh, yes. I’d like to send a postcard to my grandparents. Where’s the post offi ce?

M: I’m going to the post offi ce after school. Shall I post it for you or shall we go together?

W: Let’s go together then. Tomorrow is my birthday. Will you come to my birthday party?

M: Wow, how great! I’d love to. I will bring you a gift.

W: Thanks. Oh, by the way, I don’t have many friends yet. Would you like to bring your friends too?

M: That will be wonderful. I’ll ask my best friends to join us. Can we gather at 6 pm after the classes?

W: Better a little later, say, 6:15 at the hall?

M: OK. We’re sure to have a good time.

W: Thanks a lot.

Text 7

M: It has been proved that animals and insects have their own languages.

W: Really? Tell me more!

M: Well, their languages are not like ours. They have no letters or characters.

W: Then how do you decide what they are?

M: It depends on what you see and hear. For example, bees can talk by dancing.

W: I see. I’m always wondering why my dog barks in certain ways. If I knew his language, I would get along with him better!

M: Actually you can. Someone in Japan has invented a machine to translate a dog’s bark.

W: Great! I’ve got to buy one — I hope it won’t be diffi cult to buy a machine like this.

Text 8

W: Hi, Sam, what do you think? We can go to the ruins today. We can also go to the ruins tomorrow.

M: Let’s go tomorrow. The students are all too tired today. One said that the room was not clean and that it was not very comfortable, either.

W: Well, I think the rooms are very clean and comfortable and I have slept very well in mine. Did you notice that Marco and Peter didn’t come to the talk?

M: I suppose they were tired, but that’s not a very good excuse. Well, after visiting the ruins tomorrow, we can then have a rest. We can go to the Indian Restaurant.

W: Good idea! That’s a very popular restaurant. I’m sure our students will like it.

Text 9

W: David, do men help out while women cook in your country?

M: I think it’s changed a lot over the years. Now, men are supposed to help cook and clean.

W: Does your father cook at home?

M: No. Usually, my mom makes the meals. But actually, what I fi nd interesting is that many young husbands will help cook.

W: That’s interesting. What about you, David? Do you cook at home?

M: Well, I don’t know how to cook. The best cook in our family is my dad, actually. And he actually used to get home earlier than my mom. So he would do most of the cooking.

W: Did you ever want to learn cooking?

M: No, I’m quite ashamed. I never did really learn cooking from my parents. Did your mother show you how to cook?

W: She did because she wanted me to learn more about her mother country, but it’s so diffi cult to cook Chinese meals.

Text 10

When choosing a city to host the Olympics, there are certain things we need to consider. The fi rst is the sports facilities. The city must have an Olympic stadium and also has to provide fi rst-class training grounds. The chosen city should also have plenty of good hotels and must have an international airport nearby.

The city itself should be clean and public transport ought to be fast and convenient. If there were lots of good restaurants in the city, this would make it more attractive.

高一年级期末考试分析篇3

[关键词]数学试题错因良策

[中图分类号] G623.5 [文献标识码] A [文章编号] 1007-9068（2015）20-057

在某镇2014年秋季学期期末小学六年级上册数学统一水平测试中，笔者发现完小的学生在作答第六大题“解决实际问题”第5小题“用140cm长的铁丝做一个长方体的相架，长、宽、高的比是4∶2∶1。如果在外面包一层彩色包装纸，至少需要包装纸多少平方分米”时，得分率极低，对此我惴惴不安，掩卷长叹，于是阅卷反思，寻找错因，寻觅启示，寻求良策，以期改进。

一、错因分析

我们知道，解决实际问题的题目一般由条件、问题和结果三项组成。作答前要仔细阅读题目，一是理解题意，弄清楚题目是说一件什么事，及题目的已知条件和要解答的问题；二是分析数量关系，通过图解或表解等多种形式，使题中的条件简化；三是拟定解答计划，根据已知条件和数量关系，确定计算步骤，列出算式；四是解答；五是检验结果是否合理、正确。

遗憾的是学生并未按前面提及的五点要求进行作答，就匆匆下笔，导致仅列出了第一、二步对的算式：4+2+1=7，140÷7=20；从第三步起计算就错了：20×4=80（cm），20×2=40（cm），20×1=20（cm），80+40+20=140（cm），140分米=0.14平方分米。

学生的作答结果错误，主因一是没有认真细致审题，不善于从相关词语中获取必要的正确的计算信息：没有把“140cm”转化为长方体所有棱长的总和；没有从“长方体”一词想到它有6个面；没有从“外面包一层彩色包装纸”想到是求长方体的表面积，它有6个面，即（长×宽+长×高+宽×高）×2；没有从“多少平方分米”想到计算结果要用平方分米作单位。二是遗忘了长方体的长棱、宽棱和高棱各有4条，即20×4=80（cm）、20×2=40（cm）、20×1=20（cm）中的“80cm”“40cm”“20cm”分别是4条长棱、4条宽棱、4条高棱的总长，还需要分别除以4，进一步求出每一条长棱、宽棱和高棱各是多少厘米。三是把长度单位分米与面积单位平方分米混为一谈。

二、改进良策

1.加大力度建立学生数感。《义务教育数学课程标准》认为“建立数感有助于学生理解现实生活中数的意义，理解或表述具体情境中的数量关系”。为此，我们要创造条件，想方设法引导学生参与数感培养活动。如在教学长方体的表面积的过程中，我们要耐心引导每一个学生反复观察、反复抚摸、准确说出长方体的每一条长棱、每一条宽棱和每一条高棱，具体感受长方体的12条棱与6个面。在此基础上，请学生亲手测量手中的长方体，根据所测数据先分别计算长方体各个面的面积，然后再把6个面的面积加起来，即为长方体的表面积。这个教学过程从眼、手、脑、心四方面培养学生对长方体表面积的数感，留给学生的印象会是深刻、难忘且牢固的。

2.增强学生数据分析观念。数学学习离不开数据分析，学会数据分析会使我们获取数据中蕴含的数据计算信息。如上述题中的“140cm”没做成长方体前就是1条线段，做成长方体后截成了12条线段，但是总长是不变的。倘若学生的数据分析观念强，稍加分析就会从140cm想到长方体有12条棱，从12条棱想到长方体表面积计算。因此，我们要高度重视学生数据分析能力的培养，平时多做这方面的训练，不断提高学生获取数学知识的能力与技巧。

3.提高学生数学运算能力。小学阶段数学运算能力主要是指能够根据概念、公式和运算定律正确地进行运算的能力。培养运算能力有助于学生理解运算的算理，寻求合理简洁的运算途径解决问题。

4.提升学生数学应用意识。数学来源于生活，生活中到处都有数学，用数学知识解决生活中的实际问题，是小学数学教学的终极目标。为了实现这个终极目标，我们在平时的教学中要多引导学生参与数学活动，多一些师生互动、生生互动，促使学生养成主动运用数学知识去解决身边的数学问题的良好习惯。如教学长方体表面积、正方体表面积的公式后，发动学生寻找大小不一的长方体和正方体，动手测量数据，计算它们的棱长及表面积；要给电脑主机做布罩、为新华字典做书套、粉刷教室门，请学生分别计算需要多少布料、牛皮纸和油漆。积极引导学生解决生活中的数学实际问题，促使学生在数学运用的过程中巩固、创新知识，达成学以致用、学用结合的目标。

总之，只要我们认真落实课标要求，刻苦钻研文本，精心设计导学过程，注意学情分析，注重学生的数感、数据分析、运算能力、运用意识的培养，相信我们的学生一定能在考场上准确、轻松地解题。

高一年级期末考试前的感想作文篇4

这次考试可以说有三分简单,所以基础部分一分不落顺利通过了,这靠的是上课认真听,认真记,认真默,就可以达到的,这也说明了学习是要踏踏实实的.文言文部分也一样,碰巧一篇课文的<狐假虎威>是做过的,也不复杂,所以也没落下.而阅读部分却出现了漏洞,课内的题几乎全做过,课外的就有问题了，有许多都是靠上下文找的.我天真了一点,只看了“上下句”,因而答对一半,可“文”是什么意思?指“文章”,所以有必要时文章也得再次看,仔仔细细地找,这样答案会更精确,更完美,只要有充足的.时间，应该多看多读才行啊!我很后悔考试时自己忽略了这一点.

期终考试的作文题可谓前所未见,我想了半天,也没得个好分,扣了9分!对我来说,这无疑是个很大的打击,说实话,我本来对作文还很自信呢!分析下来,一共失误在两个地方,其一就是思路问题,题目<告诉你，我很棒>明明可以写各个方面自己做得好的事,而我的脑子好像只搭上一根筋,只是想到学习好,品德好两方面,没有开扩地想,也并没有套用以前写的,而是新写了一篇.其二就是跟老师前几周在周记本上写的一样,不够简洁.看来要改进的地方很多呢!

高一语文期末考试试卷分析篇5

凤庆县第一中学

甘凤仙

本学期的期末考试评卷工作已经顺利完成，结合本次考试学生成绩，我所教的438班、445班的语文整体成绩将从以下几个方面进行了详尽细致的分析。

一、整体情况分析

语文试卷共有四大题22小题，主客观题的分值分别为44分和106分。试题的知识面覆盖面符合高一下学期学生语文学习的实际，既重视基础知识的考查，又重知识的迁移应用能力的考查，较好地体现了理论与实际相联系的原则，可以较好地检验学生的语文水平和语文素养。学生整体成绩较好，合格率84%。

二、试题结构及特点

本次高一年级语文试题包括论述类文本阅读、文言文阅读、语文积累和运用、现代文阅读和写作等五大板块。其中语言知识约占12%，文言文阅读和古诗鉴赏约占16%，语言积累及运用占7%，现代文阅读占25%，写作占40%。全套试卷长度为8页。现代文阅读材料为文学类文本阅读与实用类文本阅读，一是小说，一是新闻；文言文阅读材料选自课外，诗词鉴赏选自课外。

本次试卷课内的基础知识占比例较小，但失分现象仍普遍存在，可见学生对知识掌握运用能力熟悉程度不够。

三、存在的问题及应对措施

1.基础知识部分：基本涵盖了本册课本主要的知识点，但学生对字音字形字义这些基础性的东西掌握得不够清楚，所以普遍失分比较严重，可见学生日常积累做得不够扎实。失分多出现在第2、4两道小题，成语应用与病句辨析仍为学生的丢分点，以后应加强训练。

2.文言文阅读：文言文阅读共4小题，主客观题型都有，涉及文言实词、虚词、文言断句、文学常识、文意理解和翻译，侧重于考查学生的识记能力。无论是断句题还是综合分析题、文言常识题、翻译题都来自教材，可以有效引导学生树立对课本和课堂学习高度重视的意识。即使这样还有不少学生做错。选择题翻译题，难度都不大，但我们的学生还是没能准确地翻译出来。不少内容是课堂上教师反复强调过的知识，但是学生的做对率还了低。我们的学生文言文的语言功底还是比较薄弱的，这要引起教师的重视。

3.古典诗词赏析：试题所选诗歌，为课外诗歌。赏析起来难度不是很大，从答题结果来看，大部分学生对诗意还是理解不到位的，并且很多学生还不能用准确的语言表述。以后的教学要注意长期适当地在教学过程中增加对诗歌鉴赏的知识传授和方法引导。

4.默写：名篇名句默写共3句，所考的句子选自必修

三、必修四及初中的课本，但是我们相当一部分学生还是得不了高分，很多学生记住了句子，但是致命的是错别字太多。消灭错别字需要从日常做起，今后一定要格外注意这一点。

5.现代文阅读：这部分共有两篇阅读，主观题和客观题都有，文学类文本阅读为汪曾祺《看水》题型设计比较合理，实用类文本阅读为新闻材料分析。试题重点考查了学生筛选和辨别信息的能力，以及对文章主题的总体理解和概括表述能力。学生理解基本到位，但是语言表达方面还是能力欠缺，应在平时多做一些阅读加紧练习。

6.语言知识运用：重点考查学生成语的辨析能力与病句的分析的能力。19题病句学生的分析仍有欠缺，20题为语言得体，结合句子意思能分析出对应错误的词语，但本部分学生依然能力欠缺。21题表达题学生的逻辑能力与语言表达能力协调差。

7.作文：本作文是分析性材料作文，学生围绕材料内容及含义，选好角度，确定立意。和以前的任务驱动型材料作文相比，文章的限制性增强了，但题目中本身还是给学生提供了较为广阔的选择空间，要求比较开放，贴近学生生活，给学生很大的自由表达和发挥的空间。卷面反映学生普遍有话可说，能很好地考查学生立意、布局谋篇、遣词造句等方面能力，学生写起来基本都很顺手。但显示出生活积累的缺乏；构思立意缺乏新意，显示学生视野和思维不够开阔；字体规范工整有待加强。此外，很多学生写作不规范，漏写标题，缺少字数，潦草书写。作文教学需要讲求长效性和循序渐进性，需要从细节抓起。

四、启发与反思

1.长远规划，整体设计教学目标，让学生有扎实的积累。

我将从高二上学期到下学期，针对自己所带班级学生语文学习情况的基础上，放眼高考，立足现状，从整体上规划自己的日常教学任务，明确设计自己每一学期教学所要达到的目标，有的放矢进行教学。例如基础知识的夯实，尤其对方言影响较大的县区学生来说，是一项长期的工程，需要教师从现在开始引导学生经常积累，以期两年后能具备比较扎实的基础知识储备。

2.循序渐进，引导学生切实提升阅读和写作能力。阅读和写作需要一个学期一个学期形成阶段性的学习目标，引导学生逐渐提升自己的能力和水平。教师应当对每一篇课进行适度的阅读和写作方面的拓展教学，不可拘泥于一篇课文的讲解，适度拓展，能让学生一篇课文有更多的收获，懂得如何能触类旁通，因而及早培养学生对语言的感受能力，拓宽学生视野，提高理解表达能力。

高一英语期末考试质量分析篇6

江阴中学

林云兰

一、关于试卷的分析

1、试题难度

为了最大限度地保护大多数学生学习英语的积极性，使各种层面的学生均能学有所获，尤其让中下水平的学生能提高学英语的兴趣，并尽快找到学英语的感觉，从而真正实现从“要我学”向“我要学”转化，本次期中考试卷难度严格依照学生实际情况，把难度值控制在0.70左右。

2、答题得失

多数考生能在各考查项目上发挥其最大潜能，但不少考生对基础知识和基本技能的掌握不扎实在这次检测中也充分暴露。主要表现在如下几方面：

（1）听力理解

听力测试的结果尽管比衔接考试的好多了，但仍尚未达到预期的效果，仍有不少考生在这一大题上失分严重，得分率不足50%。失分原因主要是考生对整体推断和细节捕捉能力不强，如题2、3、11、19等。因此，根据上下文内容，对所听材料进行分析和判断的能力有待于加强。

（2）单项填空

词汇量偏低、语法知识混乱是造成这一大题失分的主要原因，如25、26、28、32等。另外，一些学生欠缺生活常识，也在一定程度上影响对个别题目的理解，如题22。

（3）完形填空

失分的主要原因是考生捕捉篇章大意的能力较低，上下文逻辑推理能力不到位，如题41、48、45、49等。当然，词汇量偏低也是造成失分的重要原因，有些考生阅读时对语篇理解感到云里雾里。

（4）阅读理解

失分的主要原因是考生的阅读量偏低，对阅读理解5种考查能力尚缺乏应有的训练，尤其是主旨大意题、推理判断题和作者的意图和态度题等，如题65、66、71、72、73、75等。

（5）单词拼写

失分的主要原因是考生对单词的记忆模糊、是是而非，构词法能力低下，如题82、83、84等。另外，缺乏语境意识也是这次单词拼写题失分的重要原因之一，如题79、81等。

（6）书面表达

失分的主要原因是审题不清、层次不明、遗漏要点、句子表达搭配不当、词不达意、中国式英语等。另外，书写习惯不到位也是失分的一个因素，仍有部分考生的卷面是乱涂乱画的。

二、教学建议

针对在本次检测中考生所暴露出诸多问题，对本学科今后的教学提出如下建议：

（1）夯实基础知识，构建知识体系

起始年级夯实语言基础知识尤为重要，特别是对词汇和语法的落实。词汇学习要讲究方法，否则可能掉进“学了就忘，忘了再学，再学了又忘，直到最后失去信心”的恶性循环的怪圈，要在指导学生学习词汇的方法方面下大工夫；要帮助学生梳理重要语法项目，使之系统化、“网络化”，否则可能导致不少学生在走语法“迷宫”。

（2）加大语言输入量，多读多听

高考对英语听说读写诸项能力的测试并非均衡对待，而是按照课程标准的要求，突出对阅读能力的测试。这不仅表现在阅读理解题在试卷中占的比重最大，还表现在阅读能力是决定听力、完形填空（也叫缺词阅读）、书面表达、单项填空和短文填词等题型答题效果的最基本的能力。阅读语篇同时也是巩固词汇和语法，扩大词汇量和提高语感的最有效途径。因此，阅读理解能力培养应该坚持不懈。要特别关注5类常考文体，即科普知识类、广告新闻类、社会文化类、说理议论类和人物传记类。顾全5种能力考查，即主旨大意和标题、细节理解、推理判断、词（句）义猜测、作者的意图和态度等。对于较难的能力考查，如标题归纳和推理判断要重点突破。

与阅读一样，听也属于语言信息的输入。听多了，就会习惯成自然，就不会有“心译”的坏习惯，也就不会有顾此失彼的后果。但与阅读能力考查有所不同，它主要考查细节理解和简单的推理判断能力。因此，要求学生平时在听强化试题 2

时要进入竞技状态，按照“先看后听”原则，带着问题聆听并捕捉必要的信息（四要素：时间、地点、人物和事件），适当地笔录，再做简要的加工处理。

（3）强化语言输出，常说常写

说和写是学英语的必不可少的技能，两者相辅相成，说得好一定会写得好。说：要求学生课内积极参与“听说”互动，课外自觉提高朗读甚至背诵经典的句子或语段。

写：要求学生每周至少完成1篇书面表达。

高一年级期末考试分析篇7

1 对象与方法

1.1 对象

护理专业护理药理课程选用普通高等教育“十一五”国家级规划教材《护理药理》 (天津医学高等专科学校罗跃娥教授主编) 为教科书。该教材是卫生职业学校技能型紧缺人才培养培训教学用书, 不仅涵盖《药理学》一般内容, 还包括相关临床护理工作知识, 如用药护理要点等。我院2009级护理专业共10个教学班, 1 300名学生。6位授课教师采用统一的教学大纲, 该教学大纲为教研室教师根据护理专业职业技能课程剖析的护理药理知识点共同编撰。授课教师每2周集体备课一次, 统一教学内容和教学进度。从护理药理期末考试试卷中随机抽取375份试卷进行分析。

1.2 方法

1.2.1 试题组成

根据教学大纲和教学内容, 由高年资教师从题库中选取试题, 教研室主任最后把关。试题主要以教材内容为主, 包括药理学基本概念、基本理论, 代表药物主要的临床应用、不良反应和用药护理注意事项, 以及实验课的基本内容等。题型包括单选题 (含5个选项) 、多选题和简答题, 试题组成见表1。

1.2.2 考试及评分方法

学校教务处统一印制试卷、统一安排监考。按照提前制定的标准答案和评分标准评分, 单选和多选题由4位教师批改, 简答题由2位资深主讲教师评阅, 减少阅卷个体差异。同时, 安排教师复核, 保证了评分公平和公正。1.2.3分析方法将375份试卷每题成绩输入计算机, 建立数据库。使用Office Excel和SPSS 16.0软件分析数据, 对学生成绩分布, 试卷难度、区分度、信度和试题综合评价等进行分析。

2 结果

2.1 考试成绩情况

最高93分, 最低40分, 平均66分。分数全距 (53分) 较大, 平均分偏低, 分数多集中在60~70分间, 知识点掌握很好的护生较少。标准差为8.99, 护生成绩分布相对较集中, 区分度较差, 见表2。

2.2 试卷分析

试卷分析指标主要包括试卷信度、难度和区分度, 这些指标均根据教育测量学有关理论计算[1]。信度是反映整套试卷命题准确性和有效性的重要参数, 试卷信度高表明考试结果很少受随机因素影响, 考分能真实、可靠地反映受试者学习水平[2]。本次试卷的信度值为0.66, 难度系数为0.66, 区分度为0.21。

2.3 试题分析

2.3.1 试题难度系数分析[3]

试题难度系数 (P) 是用以度量试题难易程度的重要指标。一般认为, P值介于0.4~0.7之间, 试题难易程度适中;P值大于0.7, 试题偏易;P值小于0.4, 试题较难。通过统计, 试题难度系数见表3。

2.3.2 试题区分度分析

试题区分度指标是用以鉴别试题对考生实际水平差异能力的重要指标, 用D表示。一般认为D≥0.4, 试题很好;0.4>D≥0.3, 试题良好, 修改更佳;0.3>D≥0.2, 试题尚可, 仍需修改;D<0.2, 试题差, 必须淘汰[4]。本次考试区分度统计见表4。

2.3.3 试题综合评价

根据教育测量学理论, 考查试题质量应综合考虑试题难度系数和区分度。难度适中且区分度较好 (P≥0.5, D≥0.2) 的为“优秀试题”;较难但区分度较好 (P<0.5, D≥0.2) 的为“较好试题”;难度适宜但区分度较差 (P≥0.5, D<0.2) 的为“一般试题”;较难且区分度也差 (P<0.5, D<0.2) 的为“较差试题”[5]。本次试题综合分析结果见表5。

2.3.4 护生各题型失分情况 (见表6)

3 讨论

3.1 试卷题型及内容

本套试卷共包括3种题型, 单选题、多选题和简答题。高职院校提倡多证书制度, 为提高护生护士执业资格考试通过率, 题型设置与考试题型相同, 主要为选择题。本套试卷包括60道单选题和10道多选题, 共70个知识点, 阅卷、评分完全避免阅卷人的主观因素干扰。但考虑到第一次进行期末考试改革, 所以增加了5道简答题, 即传出神经系统药物、中枢神经系统药物、心血管系统药物、激素类药物、抗感染药物各出一题。整套试卷知识点多, 覆盖面广, 但均为教学大纲要求掌握和熟悉的内容, 主要为相关用药护理题目。

3.2 试卷成绩分析

护理药理是一门内容较琐碎的课程, 高职高专学生自主学习能力较差, 他们总希望教师在考试之前“划重点”。考试之前只告诉护生考试题型, 而考试内容以教材及实验实训内容为依据, 主要是护理药理基本理论, 重点药物的临床应用、不良反应及用药护理注意事项。护生觉得复习难度较大, 尤其是平时不注意听讲, 自主学习能力较差的护生。当然, 考试成绩的高低也与授课教师有关, 教师备课认真程度、语言感染力、课件制作精美程度等直接影响护生学习兴趣。此次考试提示教师应加强集体备课, 同时组织一些观摩课活动, 推广授课效果较好教师的授课方法和技巧;调动护生学习积极性, 期中组织药理知识或技能竞赛, 改革实验实训课程等。

3.3 试卷信度分析

信度是测量结果一致性或稳定性的指标, 信度越大, 意味着测量结果越可靠。标准化考试要求信度值α≥0.8, 一般课堂性考试信度值多在0.4~0.7之间[6]。本试卷信度值为0.66, 说明本次考试成绩真实可靠。

3.4 试题难度系数与区分度分析

合格性考试试卷一般要求中等难度的试题占50%, 较难和较易试题各占25%, 整套试题难度系数在0.65~0.70之间为好[7]。本试卷中等难度试题占29.3%, 较易试题占53.3%, 较难试题占17.3%, 中等难度试题偏少, 较易试题偏多。区分度小于0.2的差题占53.3%, 区分度大于等于0.4的优良试题仅占5.3%。因此, 本套试题并不能真正区分优秀学生和中等学生, 说明试题有待改进。题库需及时删减过于简单或复杂的试题, 适当增多中等难度试题量, 使题库总题量和总质量进一步提升。

在53.3%的较易试题中, 有36道单选题和4道简答题, 说明大部分护生能够认真对待学习, 记忆性知识点掌握较熟练, 且有一定归纳总结能力。为了进一步探讨试卷质量, 我们以P:0.5、D:0.2为界值对护理药理期末考试试卷进行综合评价。P<0.5、D<0.2的较差题占9.3%, 包括1道单选题和6道多选题。多选题均属教学大纲要求掌握的内容, 主要考查护生综合运用知识能力。但由于知识涵盖面较广, 备选答案易混淆, 得分率较低。如多选第10题“如何避免阿司匹林诱发的胃溃疡和胃出血?”, 此题要求护生掌握阿司匹林的服药时间、服药环境及联合用药等方面的知识, 对护生要求较高、难度较大, 该题难度系数为0.29, 区分度为0.17。多选第8题“喹诺酮类抗菌药物的不良反应包括哪些?”, 此题难度系数为0.11, 区分度为0.09, 属于答对率最低的题目。说明大多数护生掌握的知识不够全面, 知识记忆不够牢固。提示教师应在今后教学中多采用比较式、问题式教学方法, 激发护生自主学习兴趣, 最大限度调动护生学习积极性。同时, 应安排一定学时帮助护生条理化地复习知识, 如对不同类别药物进行比较学习。另外, 教学中应注重学生综合运用知识能力培养, 密切联系临床护理实践, 采用启发式教学模式, 提高护生综合分析问题能力, 为今后护理专业课程学习打下坚实基础。

综上所述, 教学改革过程中进行试卷分析非常必要, 不仅有利于建立高质量题库, 而且也为今后教学指明了方向。

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